Dear writers and wordsmiths...
Today I seem to have learned that the phrase "...which begs the question", when used as originally intended, would never then be followed by 'the question' because the question would be implicit in the preceding bit.
Is any of this right?
If 'begs' can be replaced without changing the meaning by 'raises' or 'implies' or 'leads to', then that isn't using it as originally intended from the 16th century onwards. But in such case the question raised/implied/led to usually does follow, because what went before leads to the question that is then raised, which gets to be stated so that the reader knows what it is.
That usage, whilst it has been around for years and both Cambridge and Merriam-Webster nowadays list it as the first sense, is still widely regarded as incorrect.
The petitio principii sense, M-W's+Cambridge's second sense, indeed doesn't involve a re-statement of the question. A statement that an argument begs the question is a statement that it is circular, proving something to be true by simply asserting a re-statement of that something as true; and is not followed by an actual reported or direct question.
Bytebro 🇬🇧 🇺🇦 🇬🇱
JdeBP