Texas law allows damages on top of specific performance only if the additional damages are equitable. I was hoping that this case would clarify what equitable damages are, but they seem to be the same as damages available at law.
Now that equity and law have been merged in most U.S. jurisdictions, it becomes harder with each passing decade to formulate coherent explanations of the relation of equity to law. I think ti was easier in the 16th century.
