Why does the US military obey an order to go to war despite Congress not having given their consent? - Lemmy.World

Sorry for the political question, but I’ve been hearing all the time that only Congress can declare war and therefore authorise the invasion of another country. Therefore, when the military receives orders to invade e.g. Venezuela, from the executive branch, not from Congress, why is the order followed, or why is there no corroboration of the order? It feels like there is an assumption of propriety, that the military assumes the executive branch followed proper procedural norms. Are the military exposed to prosecution for war crimes as a result of following such an order?