If, for natural numbers 𝑎,𝑏,𝑛

\[a \times b \equiv 1 \pmod n\]

is it obvious that either
\[a \equiv b \equiv 1 \pmod n\]
or
\[a \equiv b \equiv -1 \pmod n\]

Does this require special justification?

(is it one of those maths results that looks obvious but isn't)

#maths #numbertheory

@rzeta0 - Or try multiplying 5 and 3 mod 7.

There's a lot known about this issue:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiplicative_group_of_integers_modulo_n

Multiplicative group of integers modulo n - Wikipedia