Titus NemethFeb 26
typographic historians of the fediverse, is it correct to say that in foundry type the mould defined the body of the type? @typeoff
Show threadDan ReynoldsFeb 26
@tntype If you mean a hand-casting mound, then yes, sort of. How the matrix is justified plays a role, too though.
But in many typecasting machines, the answer is definitely no. There, it is the casting person who defines the body, by adjusting the machine until the sorts it casts match a reference sort. No the machine itself, or the matrix.
Show threadDan Reynolds
@tntype Moulds were built to be size specific. The width of the sort to be cast was determined by the build of the mould and the width of the body of the matrix itself (not the impression strikes into it).
Feb 26 at 10:28amWeb
Show threadDan ReynoldsFeb 26
@tntype I am not sure if two molds from separate places would have cast identical results based on the same matrix. Though I am quite intrigued by the question.
Show threadDan ReynoldsFeb 26
@tntype But more often, type from say … Garamond would have looked different in each foundry casting it, because each foundry would presumably justified his strikes differently. So the moulds would be different but so would the matrices, even though all the cast sorts came from the same punch.
Show threadTitus NemethFeb 26
@typeoff I would have thought matrices were rather traded than strikes, no?
Show threadDan ReynoldsFeb 26
@tntype I think it depends on the period but, generally, I assume that every founder already had size-specific moulds. So they would have likely bout strikes from punchcutters/other founders, allowing them to justify the strikes into matrices that would fit into their moulds. Strikes are just unfinished matrices.
Show threadTitus NemethFeb 26
@typeoff my scenario is early twentieth century, Egyptian printer providing type to Indian printer – I only have imprints to go by, no records, no material, no discussion
Show threadDan ReynoldsFeb 26
@tntype Each of these may have had some kind of machinery to cast with. Do India and Egypt have different bodies? Are they different from the US/UK body (as in, the Pica point)?
Show threadTitus NemethFeb 26
@typeoff I actually don't know. Both had been under British domination for some time, but it's more complicated in Egypt as the French had introduced printing and the only Egyptian material I've seen was in a French institution...
Show threadTitus NemethFeb 26
@typeoff precisely the scenario I am thinking about. My understanding is that the same matrix can be cast on different bodies – which are defined by the mould. Hence a different mould could produce the same typeface as a different fount with divergent vertical body dimensions
Show threadTitus NemethFeb 26
@typeoff do you concur, Dr Reynolds? ;-)
Show threadDan ReynoldsFeb 26
@tntype I do, Dr Nemeth!
Show threadTitus NemethFeb 26
@typeoff and just in case of doubt: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=aTKiGDVWF6s
Catch Me If You Can 8 10 Movie CLIP Do You Concur 2002 HD HD

YouTube