If it was known that #sarscov1 was airborne, why did we start with the assumption that #sarscov2 is not?
From 2008: "Airborne transmission of infectious respiratory diseases in indoor environments has drawn our attention for decades, and this issue is revitalized with the outbreak of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)."
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0360132307002077