In Iliad 16.50, Achilles denies to Patroclus that he knows of an prophecy about his death, even though Patroclus was present in 9.410 when it was discussed, and has specifically recalled it in 16.36. A lot of ink has been spilled over this, incl. suggestions that it means Homer wasn't a single author, which seem wrong to me given 16.36. Isn't the best explanation simply that Achilles is dissembling? He wants to rewrite his own story so his conduct will sound better.
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