I was procrastinating from making pie and so I wrote a post: why the observation “well, there are exceptions to the First Amendment” is not particularly helpful.
https://popehat.substack.com/p/the-first-amendment-isnt-absolute
I was procrastinating from making pie and so I wrote a post: why the observation “well, there are exceptions to the First Amendment” is not particularly helpful.
https://popehat.substack.com/p/the-first-amendment-isnt-absolute
How does "the court has decided 8-1 that these restrictions are the only ones to apply" fit with their recent reversal of roe v wade? Was that just a rogue court - and if so, how do we deal with that - or does it imply these sorts of things can and do change?
I'm a bit uncomfortable with "the court has a settled precedent" types of arguments, when occasionally they ignore it.
good enough. Thank you.